Hindus, why did Sri Sankara say this - 'Jiva Brhamaiva na paraha'?

that 'Jiva is no-different from Brahman'...
Then, how and where does Avidya come into picture?
Raghav, Advaita is idealism, and also an illusion ism, It is basically monism (out of egoism) to prove that Iva is none other than Brahman. The main standpoint of Sri Sankara is that only those who taken Sonya's (Renunciation) is sure to attain mufti (through that Janna destroying avid ya). So, what about such idealism for the non-sanyasins? Madhaav is definitely better in the sense of accepting the difference and the supremacy of Brahman, but for them karma is deterministic...a rare chance of escape from bondage...
Great-Thinker: "????????????????" - tad AtmAnam a-kartAram - that Self is non-doer. that verse 29, only says that the Atma is not the doer, and the actual doer is the Nature/prakriti who gunas/nature are thrust upon in the embryo while creation. Thus, our own nature/gunas are responsible. This clearly distinguishes the jiva/souls and the Brahman, the latter is not affected by or born out of prakriti. Thus, jiva is created and different. Secondly, If Prakriti is the doer/ has gunas or qualities (3 gunas), then how can the world/nature be illusory??

k2:
Exactly, you proved my point of false-ego.

Are we humiliated to learn from a teacher? or being brought up by the parents?? or saved by the cops? or treated by the doctors? Absolutely, No.


The creation and resources are there only for uplifting the jivas from their bondage due to desires. God is also antaryamin, to be easily accessible for dhyAna/contemplation. God doesnt live like a king away in His luxurious kingdom.

'Jiva Brhamaiva Na par aha' - It must have been his own experience. After this experience he tried to reform the religious beliefs and taught that truth based on his own experience and the ancient medic scriptures.

Avidya -
(1) Wrong Knowledge (with the power of Projection)
(2) Ignorance (with power of veiling the truth)

Bhagavat Gita (Chapter 13: 29,30) :

S'sS's??? ??????????? ?????? ?
?? ?????? ???????????????? ? ?????? ???- ???
??? ?????????????????????????? ?
?? ?? ? ???????? ?????? ???????? ??? ???- ??||

He, who sees that all actions are performed by Nature alone and that the Self is actionless, actually sees. When a man sees the whole variety of beings as resting in the One, and spreading forth from That alone, he then attains Brahman.

Here actual seeing is praised over ordinary observation. This in Bhagavat Gita and not invented by Shankara!!

All that just appears to be true is due to Avidya (wrong knowledge) the actuality is observed after gaining Vidya.

He did not want Jivas to be in a permanent position of humiliation before Brahman.

Avidya is always in the picture, now-a-days Vidya is out of picture!

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My apologies to the questioner.
A note for those who do not know Vedanta:

The terms: Avidya and Vidya mean "lack of true Knowledge" and "true Knowledge" respectively. Do not take these as names of some girls!!

From the statement of scriptures like Aham Brahman Asmi and Tat Tattvam Asi we come to know the non-difference of Iva from Brahman but at the same time perception tells us that while Iva appears to be bound, Brahman is free. Since the scriptures have for their realm that which is beyond the empirical and since perception is the proof in the empirical world we know through implication that from the absolute standpoint Iva and Brahman are non-different but from the empirical standpoint they appear different and the reason that such difference appears is due to avid ya.

Edit: It seems that Madhvas are blind to answers when there is one in front of them!

Don't ask such questions. A Sankaracharya will say that your head will fall if you ask such question.

When Madhvacharya asked such questions a Snkarcharya asked him to make commentaries on Prashtana tray am and ask question.

In a sense it is true If you study deeply you will get abstract answer. You will not get reasonable answer in Y/A.