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Old 08-09-2010, 12:20 AM
Michael Kelly's Avatar
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Default If A married Woman Converts to Islam, does she have to divorce her husband?

Or is that marriage void, according to the Ulamaa? Btw, Im just wondering.( And Im not a Woman!)
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Old 08-13-2010, 12:20 AM
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If her husband is not Muslim, then yes. Her marriage is no longer valid.
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Old 08-15-2010, 12:20 AM
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no
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Old 08-17-2010, 12:20 AM
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I don't think so... Unless the girl is really deep in the religion and wants him to covert. But, I'm not Trina be mean or anything, but WHY WOULD ANYONE WANNA CONVERT TO ISLAM? WHY?
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Old 08-18-2010, 12:20 AM
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Yes A Muslim women can't remain married to a unbeliever
unless the non Muslim husband reverts to Islam
She has to divorce him
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Old 08-23-2010, 12:20 AM
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Automatically becomes null and void, if the husband never convert to Islam.If than the husband converts as well, only the marriage vows should be renewed.

And Allah knows best.
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Old 08-24-2010, 12:20 AM
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Yes. Her marriage is considered void and is not recognized by Islam. Her husband should also convert.

Silly laws I would say. No logic.

If Her husband in his liberty may have consented her to follow Islam, while he may not have found any reason to convert. And

Even if she chooses to stay with her husband ( they love each other ) after being converted/reverted/perverted/inverted or whatever -- what will be the punishment according to Islam?
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Old 08-28-2010, 12:20 AM
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No, No and No!
When your (Miss) interpretation of Religion causes you to alienate yourself from your mate, or those you Love, then Religion has become a burden upon you!
As a married couple a Husband and wife are still bounded by their marital vows, until it becomes completely necessary for either to seek divorce due to abuse or irreconcilable differences.

My advice, 'following Religion' vs 'Practicing Spirituality' may share some similarities, but are not alike!
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Old 09-02-2010, 12:20 AM
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When a married woman reverts to Islam and her husband does not the marriage is invalidated. She does not have to divorce her husband formally. This marriage is void based on clear and evident proof from the Holy Quran.

Allah (s.w.t.) says in the Holy Quran:
A S'S'sA S's???????? ?????????????? ???????????? ????????????????? ??????? ???????? ??????????????? ?????? ???????????????? ??????????? ???? ?????????????? ????? ??????????? ?? ????? ????? ??????? ???? ???? ?????????? ??????? ????????? ???? ????????? ???? ??????? ?????????? ??? ????????????? ????? ??????????????? ???????????? ???? ?????????? ???????? ???????????? ??????????? ??? ??????????? ?????????????? ??? ????????? ???????? ?????? ??????? ???????? ?????????? ????????? ??????? ???????

?O ye who believe, when there come to you believing women refugees examine (and test) them: Allah knows best as to their faith: if ye ascertain that they are believers, then send them not back to the unbelievers they are not lawful (wives) for the unbelievers, not are the (unbelievers) lawful (husbands) for them. But pay the unbelievers what they have spent (on their dower).? [S?rah al-Mumtahinah: 10]


Whether Ulema (scholars) involve in the termination of marriage (i.e. to declare it void) depends on the place where the woman lives. If she lives in a place which is ruled by Islamic government then a Qadi (Islamic Jude who is also a scholar) will bring husband to court and present him Islam and if the husband rejects then the Qadi terminates the marriage immediately. This is known as faskh (??? ??????). However if the woman lives in a place that is not ruled by Islamic government then the husband is informed about the wife's Islam and given a certain time to think about accepting Islam. If he does not accept Islam within that time period then the marriage is terminated completely once the time finishes. This time period according to some is the ending of one menstrual period of the wife and according to some three menstrual periods. This is known as 'iddah (?????). During this waiting period the wife stays away form the husband (treats him like a stranger) and does not have any marital relation with him. Once this time-period is completed the marriage terminates and there is no need to divorce.

Read these:
http://qa.sunnipath.com/issue_view.asp?HD=1&ID=176&CATE=11
http://islamqa.com/en/ref/3408
http://en.islamtoday.net/node/1709
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Old 09-04-2010, 12:20 AM
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Simply her marriage is void.
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Old 09-05-2010, 12:20 AM
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In UK and most Western laws, this bunt will be 'estranged', we follow the law of the land! So she will have to take her case to the divorce courts where she will most likely lose her kids as she has shown that some religion means more to her than her family.

Also, if she marries a rag head without getting a divorce she will be charged with bigamy

Hilarious to think that Muslims think they are 'too good' for the likes of us..........I bet this bunt can't wait to move to the Slums of Al Jubial or Karachi.
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